Did John the baptist preach baptism for the forgiveness of sins or repentance for the forgiveness of sins?

Common sense would dictate that John the Baptist preached repentance for the forgiveness of sins. Why? We have plenty of precedents in the O.T. for 'repentance for the forgiveness of sins'. John actually asked one to show their fruits of repentance before he baptized them - Luke 3:8. Josephus, the jewish historian also says the same thing. Baptism, therefore is an outward sign to show that they have received his message of 'repentance for forgiveness of sins'. Christ comes along and picks up Johns message and includes belief in him - Mark 1:15, along with the repentance John preached in order to be saved. So we can see that John did prepare the way of the Lord.

So did John the baptist preach - Mark 1:4

'(a baptism of repentance)(for the forgiveness of sins)' - says baptism is required for forgiveness
or
'a baptism of (repentance for the forgiveness of sins)' - says baptism isnt needed for forgiveness

If baptism is the message John was intending to preach, then Christ should have picked it up too. Otherwise, John was preaching something that was not necessary to Christ. Instead Christ only picks up the repentance part of Johns message. Christ never says repent, be baptized and believe in the gospel.

Mark 1:5 - clearly tells us that 'water immersion' (baptism in water) is Johns duty but 'baptism with the Holy Spirit' is what Christ came to do.